1. What is the main advantage of mixed (sandwiched) integration testing?

A. Testing can only start after all modules have been coded B. Testing can begin as modules become ready without waiting for full top or bottom levels C. It requires only stubs, no drivers D. It skips unit testing

2. Which metric helps to determine the number of independent paths in a program?

A. Coupling metric B. Cyclomatic complexity C. Lines of code D. Function point analysis

3. Which debugging technique involves inserting print statements to trace variable values?

A. Backtracking B. Brute force method C. Program slicing D. Cause elimination

4. Which testing type evaluates the system’s behavior under abnormal or illegal input conditions by stressing it beyond normal capacity?

A. Volume testing B. Configuration testing C. Stress (endurance) testing D. Compatibility testing

5. What does statement coverage testing ensure?

A. Every loop is executed at least once B. Every statement in the program is executed at least once C. All branches are executed with true conditions only D. All conditional expressions are tested for true and false values

6. In equivalence class partitioning, why is testing one value from an equivalence class considered sufficient?

A. Because all values in the class are invalid B. Because all values in the class are expected to behave similarly C. Because it covers performance testing for that class D. Because only boundary values are important

7. Which of the following is a feature of black-box testing?

A. Test cases are designed by examining only the input and output values B. Test cases require knowledge of the program's internal logic C. It primarily focuses on code coverage D. It uses code instrumentation to measure execution paths

8. What is boundary value analysis used for in testing?

A. To test error handling only B. To focus on values at the edges of input ranges C. To test only invalid inputs D. To test the internal structure of the program

9. Why is adherence to coding standards important?

A. It makes the software run faster B. It ensures uniform code appearance and promotes good practices C. It eliminates the need for testing D. It reduces the number of programmers required

10. Which integration testing approach allows testing to start as soon as any module is available after unit testing?

A. Top-down integration testing B. Bottom-up integration testing C. Mixed (sandwiched) integration testing D. Phased integration testing

11. In branch coverage testing, what does the test suite aim to achieve?

A. Execute every statement in the program at least once B. Make each decision or branch condition evaluate to both true and false C. Cover all possible input data values D. Detect all syntax errors in the program

12. What is the significance of a linearly independent set of paths?

A. They represent the simplest program statements B. Each path introduces at least one new edge not in other paths C. They cover all possible inputs exhaustively D. They are paths with no branches

13. Maintenance testing focuses on:

A. Diagnostic programs and procedures to support system maintenance B. Adding new features C. Performance enhancement D. User training

14. What is the purpose of regression testing after debugging?

A. To verify that no new errors were introduced during error fixing B. To test unrelated modules C. To assess user interface changes D. To rewrite the algorithmic code

15. What is program slicing in debugging?

A. Cutting the program physically to remove errors B. Extracting the relevant parts of code affecting a specific variable's value C. Testing program output only D. Using external debugging software only

16. What does smoke testing verify before full system testing?

A. That the system has no syntax errors B. That basic functionalities work and system testing will be meaningful C. That the system handles all user inputs correctly D. That the system integrates with external hardware

17. Beta testing involves:

A. Testers within the development organization B. Select friendly customers outside the development team C. Automated test scripts run nightly D. Only performance testing

18. Why is path coverage testing challenging in programs with loops?

A. Because loops execute fewer paths B. Because infinite paths can exist due to loops C. Because loops only have a single path D. Because loops do not affect code execution

19. How does backtracking help in debugging?

A. By inserting watchpoints in code B. By tracing the source code backward from failure point to error cause C. By randomly testing the program D. By using mutation operators

20. What is the main purpose of software testing in the development process?

A. To write new code B. To identify and eliminate defects C. To design software architecture D. To prepare user manuals

21. During integration testing, what role do stubs play?

A. They replace higher-level modules B. They simulate lower-level modules not yet integrated C. They compile the program D. They record user feedback

22. What is the key objective of security testing?

A. To check system performance under peak load B. To verify that diagnostic programs function correctly C. To ensure the system is protected against unauthorized access D. To assess the correctness of basic functionalities

23. What key aspect distinguishes acceptance testing from alpha and beta testing?

A. The type of test cases used B. Who carries out the testing and decides on system acceptance C. The phase of the software development life cycle D. The programming language used

24. What is the primary goal of security testing?

A. To ensure system performance under load B. To verify the system is protected against unauthorized access and attacks C. To test the user interface for usability D. To measure code coverage

25. What is the main advantage of using coding standards in software development?

A. To make the code run faster B. To ensure uniform appearance and improve code understandability and reuse C. To allow developers to use any coding style they prefer D. To limit testing efforts

26. What does the acronym SRS stand for?

A. Software Requirement Specification B. System Runtime Service C. Software Review Standard D. System Resource Scheduler

27. What is the purpose of smoke testing during system testing?

A. To verify complex functionalities only B. To eliminate all bugs before system testing C. To determine if the integrated program is ready for more detailed testing D. To conduct security tests on the system

28. What is the primary focus of black-box testing?

A. Examining the internal structure of the program B. Testing based on input/output values without internal code knowledge C. Performance optimization D. Debugging errors in code

29. How is branch coverage useful in testing?

A. It ensures all program inputs are tested B. It ensures that every branch condition is tested for both true and false outcomes C. It validates the entire user manual D. It focuses on database transactions only

30. In mutation testing, what is a "mutant"?

A. A test case that fails due to a bug B. A program variant created by introducing a small change C. A type of bug detected automatically D. A set of equivalent programs

31. What is the difference between coding standards and coding guidelines?

A. Standards are optional, guidelines are mandatory B. Guidelines provide mandatory rules, standards offer suggestions C. Standards are mandatory rules, guidelines provide suggestions D. Both are mandatory and the same

32. What is the main difference between verification and validation in software testing?

A. Verification checks the final software product; validation checks during development phases B. Verification reviews if each development phase output conforms to its input; validation checks if the final software meets user requirements C. Verification tests software performance; validation tests security D. Verification only uses dynamic techniques; validation only uses static techniques

33. How is McCabe’s cyclomatic complexity calculated using the Control Flow Graph (CFG)?

A. V(G) = N + E B. V(G) = E – N + 2, where E is edges and N is nodes C. V(G) = number of loops times nodes D. V(G) = N – E – 1

34. What is the primary objective of unit testing in software development?

A. To integrate all modules into a system B. To test individual modules in isolation C. To perform system-wide performance testing D. To validate business requirements

35. Which integration testing approach starts testing from the top-level modules and uses stubs?

A. Bottom-up integration testing B. Top-down integration testing C. Mixed integration testing D. Incremental testing

36. What is mutation testing primarily aimed at?

A. Optimizing code efficiency B. Detecting specific fault types by altering the code slightly C. Ensuring code compiles without errors D. Validating user interface design

37. What distinguishes alpha testing from beta testing?

A. Alpha testing is performed by customers, beta testing by developers B. Alpha testing is performed by an internal test team; beta testing by a select group of customers C. Alpha testing focuses on performance; beta testing focuses on security D. Alpha testing requires full integration; beta testing occurs at unit level

38. Multiple condition coverage testing requires:

A. Testing any one condition true or false B. Making each component condition of a compound expression true and false C. Testing the highest-level conditions only D. Ignoring nested conditions

39. What is acceptance testing?

A. Testing done by the developer to check for syntax errors B. Testing by customers to decide acceptance for delivery C. Testing by an independent external test lab D. Testing that focuses only on system security

40. Which is true about a driver module in unit testing?

A. It simulates lower-level modules B. It contains non-local data and calls units under test C. It is used only in system testing D. It handles database connectivity

41. In equivalence class partitioning, how should test cases be selected?

A. By testing all possible input values B. By choosing one representative from each equivalence class C. By executing code without conditions D. By testing only valid inputs

42. What is the major drawback of mutation testing?

A. It is too simple B. It generates many mutants and requires extensive testing C. It does not detect any faults D. It replaces the need for system testing

43. What is a stub procedure used for in software testing?

A. To replace lower-level modules during unit testing B. To simulate user input for system testing C. To monitor system performance D. To execute the full system for validation

44. What does a test case typically include?

A. Source code and documentation B. Input data, the program state, and expected output C. User interface design D. Compiled executable and error logs

45. Which type of testing is primarily performed by the programmer during the coding phase?

A. System testing B. Unit testing C. Beta testing D. Acceptance testing

46. What is the primary activity in debugging?

A. Writing new code B. Identifying and correcting the program statements causing the failure C. Designing test cases D. Compiling the program multiple times

47. Alpha testing is carried out by:

A. The development test team inside the organization B. A select group of external customers C. The management team D. The end users after system delivery

48. In mutation testing, a mutant is considered "dead" if:

A. The mutated program crashes B. The error introduced is detected by at least one test case C. The mutant cannot be compiled D. The mutant runs faster than the original

49. What does McCabe’s cyclomatic complexity metric help determine?

A. The maximum size of a program module B. The number of linearly independent paths in a program C. The number of bugs in a program D. The depth of the call stack during execution

50. Why are stubs used in top-down integration testing?

A. To simulate lower-level modules that are not yet implemented B. To simulate user interface components C. To automatically generate test cases D. To replace the whole system with a simpler model