1. Which WBC has the typical percentage range of 50 to 70% in normal blood?

A. Eosinophils B. Monocytes C. Neutrophils D. Lymphocytes

2. What is the main function of the colony forming unit-megakaryocytes (CFU-M)?

A. Development of granulocytes B. Development of erythrocytes C. Development of platelets D. Development of lymphocytes

3. What is the normal range of absolute neutrophil count in white blood cells per cubic millimeter of blood?

A. 150 to 450 B. 3000 to 6000 C. 0 to 100 D. 1500 to 2700

4. Leukopenia is characterized by:

A. An increase in total WBC count B. A decrease in total WBC count C. Cancer of the blood D. An increase in red blood cell count

5. Approximately what percentage of RBCs are destroyed daily in a young healthy adult?

A. 1% B. 5% C. 10% D. 20%

6. What is the name given to RBC stacking phenomenon when blood is outside the blood vessel?

A. Agglutination B. Rouleaux formation C. Coagulation D. Hemolysis

7. What is the normal absolute value range of lymphocytes per cubic millimeter of blood?

A. 200 to 600 B. 1,500 to 2,700 C. 3,000 to 6,000 D. 150 to 450

8. During erythropoiesis, at which stage does hemoglobin first start to appear within the cell?

A. Proerythroblast B. Early normoblast C. Intermediate normoblast D. Reticulocyte

9. What characteristic shape do mature red blood cells (RBCs) normally exhibit?

A. Spherical B. Biconcave disk C. Cuboidal D. Irregular amoeboid

10. What happens to the nucleus of a late normoblast during its final stage before becoming a reticulocyte?

A. It expands and becomes more visible B. It undergoes pyknosis and is expelled C. It divides into multiple nuclei D. It synthesizes hemoglobin

11. Which stage in erythropoiesis is characterized by a nucleus that has disintegrated and disappears?

A. Intermediate normoblast B. Late normoblast C. Reticulocyte D. Proerythroblast

12. Which molecule is responsible for the "handing off" of iron after RBC breakdown for storage in the body?

A. Ferritin B. Hemoglobin C. Bilirubin D. Apoferritin

13. Which protein promotes growth and reproduction of virtually all types of committed stem cells in haemopoiesis?

A. Granulocyte-CSF B. Interleukin-3 C. Monocyte-CSF D. Erythropoietin

14. Which statement about white blood cell (WBC) count variations is correct?

A. WBC counts are highest in the early morning B. Females have significantly higher WBC counts than males C. Emotional stress like anxiety can increase WBC count D. Exercise decreases WBC count significantly

15. Which colony forming unit gives rise specifically to granulocytes and monocytes?

A. CFU-E B. CFU-M C. CFU-GM D. CFU-L

16. What is the specific gravity range of red blood cells?

A. 1.092 to 1.101 B. 1.002 to 1.010 C. 1.200 to 1.300 D. 0.950 to 1.000

17. Which WBC type is typically absent or present in very small amounts (0 to 1%) in normal blood?

A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. Lymphocytes D. Neutrophils

18. What characteristic distinguishes granulocytes from agranulocytes?

A. Presence of a nucleus B. Presence of granules in the cytoplasm C. Ability to phagocytose bacteria D. Size of the cell

19. Which of the following is NOT a physiological factor affecting total WBC count?

A. Age B. Sex C. Exercise D. Bacterial infection

20. What is the hematocrit value a measure of?

A. Proportion of platelets in blood B. Volume percentage of RBCs in blood C. Volume percentage of plasma in blood D. Percentage of WBCs in blood

21. During the fate of RBCs, what happens to the globin part of hemoglobin?

A. Converted to bilirubin B. Stored as ferritin C. Enters protein depot for use D. Excreted through bile

22. Which factor is NOT a colony stimulating factor involved in leukopoiesis?

A. GM-CSF B. G-CSF C. M-CSF D. Erythropoietin

23. Which protein secreted by monocytes and endothelial cells specifically stimulates monocyte production?

A. G-CSF B. GM-CSF C. M-CSF D. Interleukin-3

24. What is the major breakdown product of porphyrin in hemoglobin degradation?

A. Bilirubin B. Iron C. Globin D. Ferritin

25. Which of the following cells is nonnucleated?

A. Proerythroblast B. Normoblast C. Mature erythrocyte D. Monocyte

26. What is the process called during which the nucleus of the late normoblast disappears?

A. Apoptosis B. Pyknosis C. Mitosis D. Endocytosis

27. How does the biconcave shape of RBCs aid their function?

A. Provides rigidity to prevent deformation B. Increases surface area for rapid diffusion of gases C. Decreases flexibility to avoid capillary obstruction D. Makes RBCs larger to carry more oxygen

28. The biconcave shape of red blood cells primarily aids in:

A. Reducing cell thickness for easier passage through arteries B. Protecting the nucleus from damage C. Equal and rapid diffusion of oxygen and increased surface area D. Preventing clot formation

29. Which WBC shows the lowest normal percentage and absolute count in differential white blood cell count?

A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. Lymphocytes D. Eosinophils

30. What is the approximate diameter of a typical red blood cell?

A. 20μ B. 1μ C. 7.2μ D. 15μ

31. Which WBC type is involved primarily in allergic responses and parasite defense, making up 2 to 4% of total WBC?

A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils D. Monocytes

32. How do WBCs locate inflamed tissue areas?

A. Through phagocytosis B. Using chemotaxis C. By adhesion to RBCs D. Via osmosis

33. Colony forming unit-erythrocytes (CFU-E) produces which type of blood cells?

A. Granulocytes B. Platelets C. Erythrocytes D. Monocytes

34. What is the primary role of differentiation inducers in blood cell development?

A. Stimulate proliferation of all stem cells B. Transform mature blood cells into stem cells C. Cause committed stem cells to differentiate toward specific adult blood cells D. Destroy abnormal blood cells

35. Which white blood cell type is classified as a polymorphonuclear cell and stains with both acidic and basic dyes?

A. Eosinophils B. Basophils C. Neutrophils D. Monocytes

36. Which factor would physiologically cause a decrease in total white blood cell count?

A. Exercise B. Sleep C. Pregnancy D. Anxiety

37. What is the normal range of total white blood cell count per cubic millimeter of blood?

A. 500 to 2,000 B. 4,000 to 11,000 C. 20,000 to 50,000 D. 1,000 to 3,000

38. During circulation, how do RBCs maintain uniform suspension in blood?

A. By adhering to plasma proteins B. Through rouleaux formation C. Suspension stability prevents aggregation D. By binding WBCs

39. Which WBC type is most abundant in the blood in normal conditions?

A. Neutrophils B. Lymphocytes C. Monocytes D. Eosinophils

40. What is the approximate thickness of an RBC at its periphery?

A. 1μ B. 2.2μ C. 3μ D. 5μ

41. In the late normoblast, what term describes the condensed nucleus resembling an ink spot?

A. Pyknotic nucleus B. Ink-spot nucleus C. Reticulated nucleus D. Basophilic nucleus

42. What causes the formation of colony-forming blastocytes during leukopoiesis?

A. Growth inducers only B. Differentiation inducers only C. Colony stimulating factors (CSF) D. Hemoglobin

43. What is the primary role of monocytes among the white blood cells?

A. Carry oxygen to tissues B. Act as a major phagocytic cell and develop into macrophages C. Produce antibodies for immunity D. Release histamine during allergic reactions

44. Which of the following best describes the nucleus of a proerythroblast?

A. Small, with condensed chromatin B. Large, occupies most of the cell with nucleoli C. Disintegrated and extruded D. Multilobed and segmented

45. Which protein family controls the growth and reproduction of blood stem cells?

A. Hemoglobins B. Colony stimulating factors C. Growth inducers D. Differentiation inducers

46. Rouleaux formation of RBCs occurs because:

A. RBCs clump individually due to defects B. RBCs pile up one above another like a stack of coins when blood is outside vessels C. RBCs gain extra weight after blood collection D. RBCs become nucleated

47. Which of the following colony stimulating factors is secreted by monocytes, endothelial cells, and T lymphocytes?

A. Granulocyte-CSF (G-CSF) B. Granulocyte-monocyte-CSF (GM-CSF) C. Monocyte-CSF (M-CSF) D. Erythropoietin

48. What staining characteristic does cytoplasm show in the intermediate normoblast stage?

A. Entirely acidophilic B. Basophilic only C. Both acidic and basic stains (polychromatic) D. Does not stain

49. Which stage of RBC development shows the first visible presence of hemoglobin?

A. Proerythroblast B. Early normoblast C. Intermediate normoblast D. Late normoblast

50. Which component of hemoglobin is stored in the body as ferritin after RBC destruction?

A. Porphyrin B. Globin C. Iron D. Bilirubin